2. In what circumstances, if any, would the president have constitutional authority to bomb Iran without seeking a use-of-force authorization from Congress? (Specifically, what about the strategic bombing of suspected nuclear sites -- a situation that does not involve stopping an IMMINENT threat?)So candidate Obama only allows the president to use the military in an extreme emergency, a situation of life & death. In all other cases, he believes that the Congress must be consulted. But president Obama behaves differently. He has committed US troops in Libya without any oversight from Congress.
The President does not have power under the Constitution to unilaterally authorize a military attack in a situation that does not involve stopping an actual or imminent threat to the nation.
As Commander-in-Chief, the President does have a duty to protect and defend the United States. In instances of self-defense, the President would be within his constitutional authority to act before advising Congress or seeking its consent. History has shown us time and again, however, that military action is most successful when it is authorized and supported by the Legislative branch. It is always preferable to have the informed consent of Congress prior to any military action.
Personally I'm happy with US troops in Libya (along with the Canadian troops which the American newscasts ignore when they recite the list of "allies"). So in this case, I'm glad he didn't give the Republicans a chance to bog down the process. As it was, they intervention was within a few hours of being pointless because Gaddafi's troops were entering Benghazi just as the French jets struck.
Ah... morality is so complex. Fact gets entangled with the wonderfully clear world of theory. In theory the president should not have acted. But given the facts, if he didn't more when he did, there would have been a civilian catastrophe in Benghazi.
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